Whole Mdcat Online Mock Test-1

1.

Paragraph:

The Importance of Reading

Reading is an essential skill that contributes significantly to personal and intellectual development. It opens up a world of knowledge and imagination, allowing individuals to explore different cultures, ideas, and perspectives. Engaging with books, articles, and other written materials helps improve vocabulary and comprehension, which are crucial for effective communication. Moreover, reading can stimulate the mind, reduce stress, and provide relaxation. For students, it is particularly valuable as it aids in academic success and enhances critical thinking skills. In today's digital age, while screens are ubiquitous, maintaining a habit of reading traditional books and other printed materials remains crucial for well-rounded growth.

Question: Why is reading considered important for personal and intellectual development?

2. How does reading contribute to effective communication?

3. Select the synonym of the word "Abundant":

4. Select the synonym of the word "Adversary":

5. Select the antonym of the word "Timid":

6. Select the antonym of the word "Explicit":

7. For me , breakfast is __________best Meal of the day.

8. There is ____ fish in ________ bottle.

9. Identify the passive voice sentence:

10. Convert the following sentence to passive voice: “The chef prepares the meal.”

11. Convert the following sentence to indirect speech: “I am going to the store,” she said.

12. Neither John nor his friend brought ____ book.

13. This is the house where ____ lived as a child.

14. Which sentence correctly uses the comparative form of the adjective?

15. The cat is hiding ____ the bed.

16. They arrived ____ the airport on time.

17. Which sentence correctly uses a preposition?

18. Choose the correct form of the verb:

19. Over secretion of cortisol results in

20. Atrial natriuretic hormone is released from

21. Which of the following is lipophilic hormones found in almost all tissues of body:

22. FSH and LH are collectively known as:

23. The ciliated finger like structures pf oviducts are known as:

24. During initial pregnancy, corpus luteum is sustained by:

25. Choose one which is not a cause of male infertility

26. Implantation closer to the cervical opening mostly leads to

27. Which of the following characteristics does not make Pisum sativum a great choice for Mendel's experiments:

28. Which of the following flower position is a dominant character in Pisum sativum:

29. The character which is expressed in impure condition is called:

30. Which of the following statements is not relevant to the Law of Segregation:

31. Well developed but open type circulatory system is present in

32. Test cross can be well defined as:

33. Single glomerulus in proboscis is a feature of

34. Blending of expressions of two alleles is observed in:

35. Which fish swims in a way that one can barely tell it's moving?

36. Which of the following is not an example of Phylum Annelida?

37. Polygenic trait is one which

38. Platyhelminthes have:

39. Polyps are:

40. In pseudocoelomates:

41. Which of the following cellular organelle is concerned with conversion of one amino acid into another:

42. Preparatory phase of glycolysis lasts from glucose to

43. Which hormone is necessary for the production of RBC's.

44. Which one of the following bone cells help in demineralization and repair of bone.

45. For the net synthesis of a triose monosaccharide, Calvin cycle consumes a total of ____ molecules of NADPH₂

46. In non cyclic photophosphorylation, the terminal acceptor of electrons is

47. Which of the following characteristics correctly matches Temporal bone?

48. Total number of bones in pelvic girdle and associated lower limb bones is

49. In photophosphorylation, H⁺ ions move:

50. Chlorophyll b mainly absorbs _____ light

51. Sarcomere is a

52. Which pigment is also present in humans:

53. Resting membrane potential has a value of

54. Porphyrin ring of chlorophyll is

55. During this, the membrane prepares itself for the conduction of second stimulus after restoring the original resting state.

56. How many total lobes are found in both of the lungs?

57. Otitis media is an inflammation of ____________ and usually results in failure of________.

58. Cerebrospinal fluid (CSF) is present between

59. Unlike macrophages, what happens to dendritic cells after they activate T-cells?

60. Which of the following is not a function of macrophages?

61. Human brain is approximately _____ in weight.

62. What is the main role of the sinoatrial (SA) node in the heart?

63. What is the name of the smallest blood vessels where gas exchange occurs?

64. ____ plays an important role in the formation of long term memory and is this required for learning.

65. Which part of the heart pumps oxygenated blood to the rest of the body?

66. There are ____ pairs of cranial nerves and ____ pairs of spinal nerves in human.

67. Tick the incorrect about Liver :

68. Which enzyme is found in bile?

69. Match the columns:

70. Correct about Planaria:

71. Tick the correct about bacterial Plasmid:

72. Teichoic acid is not found in _________.

73. Which of the following is not a function of  Mesosomes ?

74. __________ causes syphilis and belongs to phylum________.

75. Bacteriophage escape from the host by activity of ?

76. Vector of Dengue virus is __________, while of Corona virus is _________.

77. HIV is______________ a Belongs to___________ group of viruses .

78. Which of following viruses can tend to survive at higher level of humidity?

79. Ribosome found in eukaryotic cell is _________ while in prokaryotic Is _________.

80. Sarcoplasmic reticulum of skeletal muscles is ____.

81. Which molecule is found on the Plasma membrane of RBC and acts as antigen?

82. What part of the enzyme binds to the substrate?

83. What is the primary role of an enzyme in a biochemical reaction?

84. Why Glycolipids are also called cerebrosides?

85. mRNA contains the information in genetic codes known as ________.

86. Tick the correct in descending order with reference to units:

87. In a chemical reaction, equilibrium is said to be established when:

88. Amount of heat required to raise temperature of 1g of H₂O by 1°C is:

89. 0.5 mole of CH₃COOH & C₂H₅OH each,CH₃COOC₂H₅  H₂O each are mixed in a vessel to attain equilibrium. Kc for reaction is 4:

90. In a thermodynamic process, pressure of a fixed mass of a gas is changed in such

a manner that the gas molecules give out 20J of heat and 10J of work is done on

the gas. If the initial internal energy of the gas was 40J, then the final internal

energy will be:

91. Isomorphic substances having atomic ratio 1:1 have geometry of unit cell:

92. A gas occupies 12 liters at a temperature of 300 K. If the gas is heated to 450 K, what will be the new volume?

93. Which of the following statements is/are correct

I)Radius ratio is used to predict the shape of metallic solids

II)In transition temperature between allotropic forms of sulphur if temperature goes below the 95.5⁰C then the Rhombic Sulphur will exist predominantly

III)Diamond is the strongest substance known and it is an example of molecular solid.

IV)Layers of hexagons in Graphite are held together by weak Vander Waal forces.

V)Na,Al,Zn,Fe,Cu are the examples of Metallic solids.

VI) Sodium chloride unit cell contains a total of 8 ions

94. A gas cylinder with a volume of 100 liters is filled with gas at a pressure of 5 atm. The gas is transferred into another cylinder of volume 200 liters. What will be the pressure in the second cylinder if the temperature is unchanged?

95. What are the limitations of Valence Bond theory?

96. Which of the following statements regarding surface tension is FALSE?

97. What is the S.I unit of Dipole moment?

98. What will be the molecular geometry of AX₂E₂   ?

99. Select the correct statements

I)Volatile liquids have high vapor pressure so they  evaporate readily

II)The S.I unit of Viscosity is Poise

III)Rate of Evaporation can also be affected by temperature

IV)Chains of DNA are held in particular sequence by hydrogen bonds

100. Which of the following set is permissible?

101. Acidic buffer contains __ and its salt with __ and its pH is ___

102. Select the correct statement.

I)Order of reaction is experimental parameter

II)Molecularity can be determined by looking at the balanced chemical equation

III)Order of reaction may be zero

IV)Molecularity may not be zero

103. In a second-order reaction with respect to ( A ), the rate law is given as:Rate = k[A]² If the initial concentration of ( A ) is doubled, how much faster will the reaction proceed?

104. Alpha particles have :

105. Which of the following statements are correct for Electrodes which are placed below hydrogen in ECS  :

I)They have Negative  electrode potential

II)Serve as cathode

III) Are oxidizing agent

IV)Serve as reducing agent

106. What is the oxidation state of S in  Na₂S₂O₃:

107. If the migration of electrons occur from n₂=5,6,7,8 to n₁=4 then which series is obtained?

108. Choose the correct set of statements given below

I)Neon light is the example of emission line spectrum

II)According to Bohr's concept, electron revolves around nucleus in circular orbits

III)Bohr's theory explains only wave nature of electron

IV)In visible spectrum of light, greater deviation is seen in voilet colour having greatest wavelength among all VIBGYOR colours.

V)By subtracting the number of protons from the mass number we get number of neutrons

109. Which of the following statements are not true

I)Caustic soad is prepared in Castner Kellner cell.

II)Caustic soda when reacted with HCl is it gives NaCl and H₂O

III)NaOH is highly soluble in water.

IV)Oxidation state of noble gases is zero.

110. Chlorine reacts with water to form HCl and HOCl in this reaction chlorine itself reduces to __ and oxidizes into __

111. A chemical reaction has a theoretical yield of 50 g of product, but only 40 g of product is actually obtained. What is the percent yield of the reaction?

112. What is the molar mass of a compound if 0.25 moles of it weigh 10 g?

113. When CuFeS₂ decomposes in presence of excess air into Cupreous Sulphide and Ferric Oxide. This process can be named as

114. If 4 g of hydrogen gas reacts with 30 g of nitrogen gas to form ammonia, what mass of ammonia is produced, and which is the limiting reactant?

Molar masses: H₂ = 2 g/mol, N₂ = 28 g/mol.

Reaction: [ N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) -----> 2NH₃(g) ]

115. If 8 L of nitrogen gas N₂ reacts with hydrogen gas to form ammonia ((NH_3)), what volume of hydrogen gas is required at STP?[ N₂(g) + 3H₂(g) ----> 2NH₃(g) ]

116. The reactivity of aldehydes towards nucleophilic addition is greater than ketones because of:

117. Which of the following statements are correct

I)Reduction of aldehydes and ketones can give Alkane or alcohol depending upon the suitable reducing agent
II)Carbonyl Compounds are generally soluble in polar solvents
III) Addition of strong nucleophilic reagents on aldehyde and ketone is catalysed by base
IV)Ozone is used in the treatment of drinking water

118. The reduction process of aldehyde and ketone in presence of Zinc Amalgam and Conc HCl is called as___ reaction while in presence of Hydrazine and KOH is called as___ reaction

119. Carboxylic acids can be converted into Alkane when they are reacted with?

120. The reagent that cannot produce an Acyl Halide in reaction with a Carboxylic acid is:

121. Alkyl nitrile when reacts with water in the presence of acid, it changes into.

122. 1 gram of fat(lipid) provides approximately :

123. Development of gum disease is associated with high intake of ____ while weight gain and obesity has been associated with high intake of

124. An example of a bidentate ligand among the following is:

125. In geometrical Isomers, if the same group lies on same side of molecule then it is called as

126. Select the correct statement :

I)Alkynes are less reactive towards electrophilic reagents as compared to alkenes.
II)Hydrogenation of alkynes in presence of Ni,Pt and Pd catalyst gives alkane
III)During hydrohalogenation of alkynes markovnikov’s rule applies in first step.

127. When alkene reacts with halogen in presence of water the product formed is?

128. IUPAC name of isopropyl alcohol is:

129. Number of pi bonds in 4,5-dimethyl-2-hexyne

130. Which of the following type of fossil fuel causes less pollution?

131. Which of the following is not an organic compound

132. Benzene,Toluene, Xylene and naphthalene are obtained through fractional distillation of?

133. Sodium Benzene Sulphonate when fused with sodium hydroxide at 300-350°C produces sodium phenoxide which on acidification yield:

134. When an Alkyl Halide is heated with aqueous alkali(NaOH,KOH) , what is the product formed?

135. What products are formed when grignard reagent is reacted with following reactants: Carbon dioxide,Ketone,Water,Primary Amine.

136. Which of the following factors is the least influential in determining the rate of an E₂ reaction?

137. Which of the following is correct for nucleophile :

138. The high reactivity of Alkyl Halides is attributed to the polarity of:

139. The presence of meta directing groups in benzene ring ____ the electron density at ____ due to _____

140. What is the ultimate product formed by the ozonolysis of ethyne?

141. Electric potential sets across the terminals of a battery is called as:

142. On which principle does the transformer work?

143. The ohm's law is applicable if:

144. If a projectile is launched at an angle of 60° with the same speed, how does the range compare to one launched at 30° with the same speed?

145. If a system undergoes contraction of volume, then the work done by the system will be

146. A ball is thrown horizontally with a speed of 15 m/s from a height of 20 m. How long does it take for the ball to hit the ground? (g=9.8 m/s²)

147. A total charge of 100 C flows through a 12 W light bulb in a time of 50s. What is the potential difference across the bulb during this time?

148. Two bulbs having the ratings 40 W, 220 V and 20 W, 110V. The ratio of their resistance is

149. The value of mutual inductance can be increased by

150. In the formula F= q (vx B):

151. Primary and secondary coils of a transformer have 50 and 200 turns respectively. When
Primary is connected to 9-volt battery secondary voltage is:

152. A photon is-considered to have:

153. A highly radioactive material has a half-life of 1 day. What is the fraction of atoms that Have disintegrated after 4 days?

154.

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155. A boy pushes his little sister on a sled. The sled accelerates from 0 to 4 m/s. If the combined mass of his sister and the sled is 40.0 kg and 16 W of power were generated, how long did the boy push the sled?

156. A body starts from rest and travels with uniform acceleration on a straight line. If its velocity after Making a displacement of 32 m is 8 m/s, its acceleration is:

157. What is the process of converting AC to DC?

158. The direction of induced e.m.f can be found by

159. Photoelectric effect can be used;

160. Gamma rays are different from alpha and beta rays because they:

161. The energy of a photon is related to its:

162. Beta particles are emitted in a radioactive decay process when:

163. Which of the following statements is true regarding alpha particles?

164. Lenz's Law is a consequence of the law of:

165. According to Faraday's Law of Electromagnetic Induction, the induced EMF in a coil is directly proportional to:

166. The magnetic field at the center of a current-carrying circular loop is proportional to:

167. The force between two parallel current-carrying conductors is:

168. The de Broglie wavelength of a particle is inversely proportional to its:

169. Which of the following is true for the photoelectric effect?

170. The toque in the current carrying coil suspended in a magnetic field can be increased by
increasing:

171. The kinetic energy of the pendulum bob shown in the figure changes maximum when it moves Between points:

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172. Electric field lines are:

173. What is not a statement of one of Newton’s laws of motion:

174. Can an object‟s velocity equal zero when object‟s speed is greater than zero?

175. A substance has a half life period of 10 minutes. If 36 particles are taken then what number of particles would decay after half an hour:

176. A 0.1kg bullet initially travelling at 20m/s penetrates 0.4m into sand, the average retarding force exerted by sad on block is:

177. In which of the following process a particle loses its part of energy:

178. AC generator works on the principle of:

179. When any charge is at the equipotential surface then it has:

180. The internal energy of the system decreases in an adiabatic process. Which of the following can be the true condition for it:

181. A battery of 12V is connected to three resistors of 4Ω, 5Ω and 3Ω joined together in parallel. The current through the 5Ω resistor is:

182. The speed of sound in air at zero degree is 332 m/s. The speed of sound at 295K will be:

183. If you drop an object with an initial velocity of zero, how far will it fall in time "t" :

184. What is the site of storage of electric energy in a capacitor :

185. Emission of electrons from a red hot tube when applied by high voltage is called:

186. If all components of kinetic energy are doubled then the net kinetic energy would be:

187. Which of the following are the main constituents of Cosmic rays arriving in sunlight:

188. An object is said to be supersonic when the:

189. If two bulbs are used for the brightness source in a house circuit, we can increase their brightness by:

190. Tick the correct:
I. Lifting force does negative work in lifting
II. Gravitational force does positive work in lifting
III. Stretching force does positive work in spring
IV. Restoring force does negative work in spring

191. Magnitude of induced current in any circuit is given by:

192. When a body is thrown vertically against the action of gravitational force, at the highest point it has;

193. The Intensity level of faintest audible intensity is:

194. Lenz's law is another form of which law:

195. Which word does NOT belong with the others?

196. In a certain code language, "CAT" is written as "3120." How is "DOG" written?